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16 Dec 2007, 12:57 (Ref:2089911) | #1 | |
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Why did Ferrari receive no punishment in "spygate"?
I couldn't find an existing thread on this. Mods, feel free to merge with another thread if you see fit, but occasionally I've seen this asked and no response given, so I didn't want the question getting lost amidst the general discussion on "spygate" as it's called.
What are the circumstances that enabled McLaren to be punished due to having Ferrari data due to one of their employees, but Ferrari not to be punished for having one of their employees instigate the act? Is it because it is not against the rules for an employee to release such data, but it is against the rules to receive it? |
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16 Dec 2007, 13:00 (Ref:2089916) | #2 | ||
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Because the FIA actually stands for Ferrari International Assistance.
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16 Dec 2007, 13:04 (Ref:2089918) | #3 | |
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16 Dec 2007, 15:42 (Ref:2089963) | #4 | |
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i thought this was covered pretty thoroughly in the stepneygate thread. however, if the fia were to pursue punishing ferrari because of stepney then mclaren would also face punishment because of their employee taking information to renault.
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16 Dec 2007, 15:48 (Ref:2089965) | #5 | ||
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Ferrari were the victims. Whilst theres laws to say teams like McLaren and Renault should be held accountable of roque employees gaining information to illegaly find performance gain, theres no laws to say teams like Ferrari should be responsible for their employees passing that information on. Surely, the lost information would be punishment enough to Ferrari in this case. I'd personally hope most would see punishing Ferrari in cases such as this as more farcical than $100m fines.
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16 Dec 2007, 15:56 (Ref:2089968) | #6 | ||
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16 Dec 2007, 16:01 (Ref:2089971) | #7 | |
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The problem there though Jeremy is that it became a huge thread that many people wouldn't have the time to sift through to find the relevant discussion point. It is also now closed, so I thought it merits its own thread to keep the discussion on topic.
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16 Dec 2007, 16:01 (Ref:2089972) | #8 | |
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16 Dec 2007, 16:10 (Ref:2089976) | #9 | ||
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An additional aspect, and probably an alternative way of looking at it to my previous point, is that Stepney stole Ferrari information. Here I an thus seperating Stepney from the larger entity of Ferrari, and yet because he worked for them, Ferrari committed something illegal as well. (illegal in the sense of the law rather than the sporting law or regulations.) |
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16 Dec 2007, 17:39 (Ref:2090012) | #10 | ||
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this sort of thing happens in the high tech world too. when an employee steals technical data, plans, etc from their company, the company that the data was stolen from is not found to have done anything illegal, but the company that accepted the stolen information is sued and is often fined millions of dollars. there have been a lot of cases in silicon valley and other places where this has happened or a company has been sued for infringing on someone elses patent. |
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16 Dec 2007, 18:18 (Ref:2090025) | #11 | ||
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Ferrari ought to be punished. No way can we leave one team sink in the mud, now that renault has managed to jump clear from dirt.
Anyway, while Mike is "the rogue employee" who opened the gates, there were this driver, this senior management and this senior engineer who jumped in to drag Mclaren down. And i'm not too sure Mclaren will enjoy being punished (again) for their "employee" who assisted Renault to cheat, which according to your theory they will also be 'guilty' of? Probably you'd see the logic in this ? Quote; "I'd personally hope most would see punishing Ferrari in cases such as this as more farcical than $100m fines." Yupps. |
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16 Dec 2007, 18:56 (Ref:2090035) | #12 | |||
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Quote:
Quote:
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16 Dec 2007, 19:16 (Ref:2090040) | #13 | ||
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But if we want to argue the validity of punishing a team for them having their information stolen by an employee, then we'd expect that Ferrari should be punished for Nigel's misdeed and Mclaren for their ex-employee-to-Renault's misdeed, or not, and that would be regardless of whether Mclaren and Renault are punished for their possession or use of Ferrari and Mclaren's data respectively.
You can't seperate Mclaren's "initiated the action" from Ferrari's "initiated the action" simply from the basis that in the other case, Mclaren was punished for possession whereas Renault wasn't. Unless, what we want to say is that since Mclaren is punished in spygate, then we need to find a way to punish other parties just for parity's sake. So going through one big circle, the bottom line is that it would be ridiculous to punish any team simply on the basis that somebody had stolen information from them. I doubt any teams will intend to let information be stolen. But i believe many on this forum may well disagree and adopt the thinking that Ferrari ought to be held accountable for Nigel's misdeeds, and for exposing the misdeeds that consequently take place within Mclaren. |
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16 Dec 2007, 19:52 (Ref:2090045) | #14 | |
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But am I not right in thinking that Renault were 'officially' found 'guilty'? (Yet no punishment was handed to them because it couldn't be proved they'd 'used' the data- what constitutes using? Is seeing not enough? After all, McLaren never got as far as actively using the data. They would have done. But from what I read of the transcripts, they never got as far as that before the whole thing was exposed),
But if Renault weren't punished, then McLaren certainly shouldn't punished for their employee bringing the information to Renault. |
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16 Dec 2007, 20:39 (Ref:2090058) | #15 | |||
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But what can we do about it ? |
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16 Dec 2007, 21:47 (Ref:2090104) | #16 | ||
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nothing
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17 Dec 2007, 00:24 (Ref:2090205) | #17 | ||
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To my knowledge they have only been punished for receiving and intending to use information from Ferrari. |
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17 Dec 2007, 00:49 (Ref:2090214) | #18 | ||
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No, they haven't. I was talking hypothetically, based on the impression I got from Gt_R that he thought that I would think McLaren shouldn't be punished for the Renault spygate, whilst I wondered exactly what it was that stopped Ferrari being punished for the McLaren spygate. Based on this:
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I feel like I've just said 'punished' a lot. |
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17 Dec 2007, 02:15 (Ref:2090244) | #19 | ||
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Maybe that's what we call a witch hunt. *alert the lawyers*
Simply, i'm saying that whether a team should be held accountable for having their information stolen is independent on whether the other party who stole is punished or not, for it is a legal breach, it will be seen as such on its own. i used 'stole' loosely here, not meaning really steal, because i thought "borrowed" will sound strange. |
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17 Dec 2007, 04:14 (Ref:2090274) | #20 | ||
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for example, lets say that you are an employee working at a jewelry store. now lets say you stole one of the diamond rings from that store and sold it to a pawn shop. what would happen is that you would face criminal prosecution, the pawn shop would be required to return the stolen merchandise, and if the pawn shop was found to have knowingly accepted stolen merchandise and had not contacted the authorities immediately the pawn shop would face criminal prosecution. in no circumstances would the jewelry store face any sort of criminal prosecution even though it was one of their employees who stole the diamond ring. now lets replace the pawn shop with mclaren, the jewelry store with ferrari, and the employee with stepney. that is why ferrari would not face any punishment for stepneygate and mclaren would not face any punishment for what happened with renault. note: this does not condone the degree of punishment that mclaren received. |
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17 Dec 2007, 07:33 (Ref:2090326) | #21 | |
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...doesn't the confusion arise from Ferrari's running an illegal car and Stepney blowing the whistle on them (compounded by his umbrage at being passed over for promotion)?
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17 Dec 2007, 10:48 (Ref:2090425) | #22 | ||
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The information was stolen. As in "not a willful act" by any of the Ferrari organization other than the actual person who stole the information.
On McLaren side, the information was willfully received and used (by more than one person, fwiw). Get the picture? It's like saying that if you have a person that works in your house nicking your silverware you have to be punished. I have heard of no legal system in which that is the case. However, almost all legal systems punish the thief as well as the person who buys from the thief. |
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17 Dec 2007, 11:06 (Ref:2090432) | #23 | ||
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I'll add my voice to the why should Ferrari be punished. They may have hammered the victim stance, but they didn't chose to release the secrets. It is one of their (ex-)employees that is guilty.
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17 Dec 2007, 11:07 (Ref:2090433) | #24 | ||
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What GT_R said!
Sure! Punish Ferrari for not having "control" of their employees! In fact, let's carry that over to day-to-day life: Let' say your mum hires someone to work for her in her home. They steal her TV. they sell it to someone to buy drugs. During the deal to sell the TV, someone is killed. Using the "punish whoever for not controlling their employees idea" the logical outcome should be that she is punished for the murder seeing as how she could not control her employee. After all, she "allowed" him to steal her property by not having the appropriate controls in place which resulted in a death while selling it. So what should her punishment be? Accessory to murder? String 'er up! |
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17 Dec 2007, 11:25 (Ref:2090439) | #25 | ||
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Or punish Ford every time someone uses a Transit van to rob a warehouse?
Logically, Ferrari can't be punished for something which was beyond their control, and which they didn't directly benefit from (they benefitted from the FIA's ruling, but there was no guarantee of that happening). |
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